At my seminary, and all other places, I always hear that the word "homosexual" is a recent term coined in the 19 century, therefore, we cannot read into the bible the meaning that we understand it today.
Well, a bit of history first. The man who coined the term, "homosexual" was Karl-Maria Kertbeny, an Austrian born Hungarian writer and human rights promoter.
What you never hear from those who propose gay marriage, or the gay lifestyle, that on the same year he coined the term, "homosexual", he also coined the word "heterosexual".
My question is, can we also apply the gay's argument, that heterosexuality is not the same in biblical times as with the meaning that Kertbeny gave it in the 19 century?
For 19 centuries there was no concept of heterosexuality?
Mind you, Kertbeny was just giving labels to practices that were known, accepted (heterosexuality) or repudiated (homosexuality).
Poor Kertbeny is today a gay icon, although he was married. Shows you how some people misrepresent history, just to prove that their view is the right one.
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